Why would something being "well-established psychology" preclude it from being "behavioral economics"?
Let’s say you have just met with your doctor who has informed you that you have tested positive for a typically fatal disease. To make things worse, this test is accurate 95% of the time. ... If the prevalence of the disease is 1 in 1000, the likelihood that you actually have the disease (based on this test) is less than 2%.
(based on this test)
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