The Greek philosopher, Aristotle, pronounced us "deaf and dumb", because he felt that deaf people were incapable of being taught, of learning, and of reasoned thinking. To his way of thinking, if a person could not use his/her voice in the same way as hearing people, then there was no way that this person could develop cognitive abilities. (Source: Deaf Heritage, by Jack Gannon, 1980) In later years, "dumb" came to mean "silent".This is just dumb. (Sorry, couldn't resist.) Point 1: Aristotle (wait for it) didn't speak English. He therefore had no opinion on the word "dumb," which did not yet exist. Point 2: The meaning 'destitute of the faculty of speech' is as old as the English language (c1000 Ags. Gosp. Matt. ix. 32 Hi brohton hym dumbne man). The meaning 'foolish, stupid, ignorant' is first attested in 1823 (J. F. COOPER Pilot II. iii. 39 ‘They're a dumb race’ said the cockswain,..‘now, there was our sargeant, who ought to know something’), although the OED includes a 1756 citation referring to Thomas Aquinas that does not seem to me clearly relevant (A. BUTLER Lives Saints I. 393 His school-fellows thought he learnt nothing, and, on account of his silence, called him The dumb Ox). Conclusion: the meaning 'silent' is indisputably earlier, by a very long shot, and the National Association of the Deaf is talking through its collective hat.
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posted by vraxoin at 10:12 AM on August 29, 2003