"One of these three was a man who knew things"--the closest translation for scholar, but unfortunately it also meant witch.At the very end, the old man says
We, who are elders, will instruct you in their true meaning, so that when you return to your own land your elders will see that you have not been sitting in the bush, but among those who know things and who have taught you wisdom."Now, is the expression that he used to mean "a man who knew things" the same as the expression the old man uses when he refers to "those who know things"? Because it clearly contains the meaning he was going for. And if it wasn't, might he have saved a lot of confusion if he had used it instead of the one he did?
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There is a bit of a strawman fallacy in assuming that Hamlet is universal, then going to prove it may not be.
This is a pretty old piece (30+ years) and while it has some good points, it is high school / or into to Antro level.
posted by edgeways at 9:07 PM on June 11, 2006