'Plaintiff contends that ‘Defendants’ reliance on Goodridge v Dept. of Public Health, an indisputably unconstitutional decision is in contravention to the Supreme Court's decision in Baker v Nelson (holding that a State law barring marriage between persons of the same sex does not violate the equal protection or due process guarantees of the United States Constitution).'But this is utterly irrelevant. Just because the US Supreme Court said such laws don't violate the US constitution does not mean that a state supreme court can't rule that such a law does violate the state constitution. This isn't exactly advanced con law, folks, this is really basic stuff. If he can't get that right, I'm certainly not surprised that skipping one question was enough to make him fail the bar exam.
"Whoever is admitted as an attorney shall, in open court, take and subscribe the oaths to support the Constitution of the United States and of the Commonwealth; and the following oath of office shall be administered to and subscribed by him:posted by ericb at 12:04 PM on July 3, 2007'I (repeat the name) solemnly swear that I will do no falsehood, nor consent to the doing of any in court; I will not wittingly or willingly promote or sue any false, groundless, or unlawful suit, or give aid or consent to the same; I will delay no man for lucre or malice; but I will conduct myself in the office of an attorney within the courts according to the best of my knowledge and discretion, and with all good fidelity as well to the courts as my clients. So help me God.'The attorney's oath in substantially its present form was adopted by a rule of court in 1686. It was required by a Province law in 1701 and has been required ever since except for the period from 1836-1860 when by legislative enactment a simpler form of oath was in use."*
118. Plaintiff contends that the Massachusetts state government advocating the normalization of homosexual behavior on the Massachusetts Bar Examination is disingenuous considering the fact that homosexuality is neither in born or hereditary in nature.Ignoring the fact that the fact he's considering is not, in fact, a fact...
Or maybe he read this question, got so unbelievably flustered over the fact that those faggots and lesbos have the same rights as real people, despite everything that the Bible says about it (which is very little, actually)Maybe in terms of number of words, but I think you're on shaky ground if you're trying to insinuate that the Bible is not vociferously anti-gay. It's pretty clear on the issue - teh butt sex is an affront to the Christian god.
Actually, the Bible is pretty clear about the whole "magic" thing. Lev 19:26, Deu 18:10, 2Ki 17:17, Act 8:9 and 19:19... you'd really be more moral if you don't believe in magic.This is a rather narrow, if not flatly incorrect, view of what the Bible has to say on the subject.
It could have been a boy named Jane.
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posted by facetious at 11:38 AM on July 3, 2007