For purposes of our analysis, Fair Market Value is defined as the price at which property would change hands between a willing buyer and a willing seller when neither is acting under compulsion and when both have reasonable knowledge of the relevant facts. As such, our analysis attempts to address the question, “What price would a third party pay for the Subject Investments, given their terms, on their respective valuation dates?” Our analysis does not address what terms or price the Treasury should have or could have accepted...This makes sense; although the assets were bad, they weren't and aren't totally worthless — they're worth something, it's just that the banks have resisted selling them (and taking the loss) at the price the market would actually bear. And the market wasn't interested in paying the banks' asking price. So the Treasury stepped in and basically overpaid, versus what any reasonable independent actor would have done, in order to get the stuff off the banks' balance sheets.
"We believe that Berkshire Hathaway is able to achieve terms that are unavailable to other private investors because of Mr. Buffett’s history and reputation in the capital markets. In effect, Berkshire Hathaway is offering more than just capital; it is also selling the “Buffett” name as imprimatur on the viability of the entity receiving Buffett capital."Many thanks for an interesting post; lots of good reading there.
« Older Cinemaware produced games with one goal: a "s... | Australian auto website offers... Newer »
This thread has been archived and is closed to new comments
posted by Malor at 8:45 PM on February 19, 2009