Except that this bill (and similar ones in the past) have not sought to give DC a seat in the Senate, but rather a voting seat in the House.Um.
The House of Representatives shall be composed of Members chosen every second Year by the People of the several States, and the Electors in each State shall have the Qualifications requisite for Electors of the most numerous Branch of the State Legislature.Is this not clear?
No Person shall be a Representative who shall not have attained to the Age of twenty five Years, and been seven Years a Citizen of the United States, and who shall not, when elected, be an Inhabitant of that State in which he shall be chosen.
Flunkie, I agree that there's a constitutional argument to be made, but it isn't airtight. I mean, the language doesn't prohibit representatives from the district. It just demands two from each state.That's not true.
I think the argument for constitutionality has to do with how the US has treated the word "state" in other parts of the Constitution as including DCI think this is off the mark, too.
The right answer (...) is to admit the District of Columbia as a stateI don't know, that might not be as clear-cut unconstitutional as the current proposal, but an argument could at least be made.
Because DC residents pay federal income tax.So if Congress decides that DC residents no longer have to pay federal income tax, then those residents don't deserve representation in Congress?
I think it has to do with the distinction between a district and a territory.What distinction?
Delaware had under 60,000 (no slave population estimate I could find).
It certainly does away with the "no taxation without representation" argument.Sure, but the Constitution doesn't say anything about such an argument. It says states and only states get Congressional representation.
I don't remember saying that it does.Please note that my entire set of contributions to this thread has not been against representation for DC; it has been against a law, like the proposed one, as opposed to against a Constitutional amendment.
The arguments in favor of representation for DC are not arguments that the Constitution mandates it.
Though can you point me to the part of the Constitution that says "states and only states?"Yes. In fact I have already done so in this thread. The Senate shall be two members from each state. The House shall be residents of states, elected by those states. Go back and look through the thread if you want the actual direct quotes.
You seem to be trying to argue with me about what the Constitution says. I don't know why you're doing this, but I suppose I can play along. I would definitely describe myself as a constitutional textualist when it comes to my opinions about constitutional jurisprudence. Nevertheless, I think your interpretation of the Constitution's language meaning "states and only states" is reading meaning into the text that is not there. Sure, if you insert a few "onlys," it can be changed to have that meaning. But the onlys just aren't there.OK, I give in: I'll repeat the exact quotes:
Cmon, guys. Let's not pretend that this is about anything other than the GOP being frightened of it's natural enemy: A black person with a ballot.I have no doubts -- absolutely none -- that the Republican Party has less than noble reasons for voting against this proposed law.
Population density varies greatly across the US, from urban to rural areas. If all representation was based purely on individuals, how much representation would rural areas get in comparison to the cities? It would be just as unfair.Says who? Why should rural areas get representation out of proportion to their population? What's wrong with one person one vote?
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posted by mullingitover at 6:09 PM on September 19, 2007